Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 00:32
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
What is the impact of being stereotyped as poor on an individual's life? How does it make them feel?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.